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The
Way Things Were
There are some stories in
the Bible that nearly everyone – whether they’re
Christian or not – has heard at some point or another.
Stories about Noah and the ark, Jonah and the whale, David
and Goliath are relatively well known to the average
person. Most people have also, at some point, heard about
Adam and Eve. Let’s first look at this story a bit
closer, to see what we can learn about the first humans.
Adam
and Eve
The first mention we find
in the Bible of Adam is in the creation story.
"And God said, ‘Let
us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them
have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl
of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth,
and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the
earth.’ So God created man in his own image, in the
image of God created he him; male and female created he
them."
Genesis 1:26-27, KJV
Whose image was mankind
created in?
Do you think that Adam
would have known that he was created in God’s image?
"And the LORD God
commanded the man, saying, Of every tree of the garden
thou mayest freely eat: But of the tree of the knowledge
of good and evil, thou shalt not eat of it: for in the day
that thou eatest thereof thou shalt surely die."
Genesis 2:16-17 KJV
Which tree were Adam and
Eve not supposed to eat from?
What were the consequences
of eating from this tree?
"Now the serpent was
more subtle than any beast of the field which the LORD God
had made. And he said unto the woman, Yea, hath God said,
Ye shall not eat of every tree of the garden? And the
woman said unto the serpent, We may eat of the fruit of
the trees of the garden: But of the fruit of the tree
which is in the midst of the garden, God hath said, Ye
shall not eat of it, neither shall ye touch it, lest ye
die. And the serpent said unto the woman, Ye shall not
surely die: For God doth know that in the day ye eat
thereof, then your eyes shall be opened, and ye shall be
as gods, knowing good and evil."
Genesis 3:1-5 KJV
Once again, whose image was
man created in? Flip back to the first page if you don’t
remember.
What did the serpent say
would happen if Adam and Eve ate of the fruit?
"And when the woman
saw that the tree was good for food, and that it was
pleasant to the eyes, and a tree to be desired to make one
wise, she took of the fruit thereof, and did eat, and gave
also unto her husband with her; and he did eat."
Genesis 3:6 KJV
Did Adam and Eve believe
what God had said: that they were already in the image of
God, or did they believe what the serpent said: that they
had to eat of the fruit in order to be like God?
From these verses does it
make sense that the sin Adam and Eve committed was
unbelief?
"And Adam lived an
hundred and thirty years, and begat a son in his own
likeness, and after his image; and called his name
Seth"
Genesis 5:3 KJV
God promised that Adam
would die if he and Eve ate from the Tree of the Knowledge
of Good and Evil. Did Adam die physically as soon as he
ate from the tree?
Since Adam didn’t
physically die that day, would it make sense that he died,
spiritually?
The Bible says that God is
a living God. If Adam died (spiritually) because of his
sin, was he still in God’s image?
When Seth was born, whose
image was he born in: God’s or Adam’s?
"Wherefore, as by one
man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so
death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned"
Romans 5:12 KJV
According to this verse,
how did death enter the world?
To how many people did
death pass?
Did these people have to
know about Adam, or believe in him to become dead, or did
they just become dead because of Adam?
"For until the law sin
was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no
law. Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses,
even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of
Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to
come."
Romans 5:13-14 KJV
According to this verse,
did people have to make the same mistake as Adam in order
to be spiritually dead?
The word sin here is a noun
again. So when it says that death reigned even over the
people who hadn’t done the same sin as Adam, what sin is
it referring to?
Did people have a choice
about whether they were considered sinners and
unbelievers?
From these verses then,
what can be concluded about people who believed but still
had Adam’s sin imputed to them?
We’ll go back to these
verses in Romans 5 later, but for now, let’s look a
little closer at this "law" that was given.
Parts
and Purpose of the Old Testament
In Jewish tradition, the
‘Hebrew Scriptures’ (the Christian Old Testament) is
broken up into two, or sometimes three, major sections:
the law, the prophets and the writings. When only two
divisions are specified, they are the law and the
prophets. We’ll take a brief look at both of these
sections, and see how they apply to the human race,
post-cross.
The
Law of God
When most people think
about God’s law(s), they usually think of the Ten
Commandments and the sacrifices. The law, though, includes
many more rules than just these few. Jewish scholars have
determined that there are 613 separate laws that God told
the Jews to follow. Not only that, but the first five
books of the Bible (Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers
and Deuteronomy) are collectively referred to as "the
law".
"Cursed be he that
confirmeth not all the words of this law to do them. And
all the people shall say, Amen."
Deuteronomy 27:26 KJV
"For whosoever shall
keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is
guilty of all."
James 2:10 KJV
How much of God’s law did
the people have to keep in order to be seen as innocent in
God’s eyes?
What is the result of
breaking one law?
So under the law, was any
person better than another in God’s eyes, or were all
equally guilty, no matter what they had done?
"What advantage then
hath the Jew? or what profit is there of
circumcision? Much every way: chiefly, because that
unto them were committed the oracles of God."
Romans 3:1-2 KJV
Who was the law – the
oracles of God – given to?
Were the oracles of God
ever given to anyone who was not a Jew?
"There is neither Jew
nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is
neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ
Jesus."
Galatians 3:28 KJV
According to this verse in
Galatians, does the group "Jew" exist anymore,
in God’s eyes?
So if the group
"Jew" is no longer in existence, and the oracles
of God were given only to the Jews, is there anyone on
earth today to whom the oracles of God (the law) still
applies?
" Now
we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to
them who are under the law: that every mouth may be
stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God.
Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be
justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of
sin."
Romans 3:19-20 KJV
According to Romans 3:19,
to whom does the law speak?
Whom does the law declare
guilty before God?
What knowledge does the law
give to people?
"But before faith
came, we were kept under the law, shut up unto the faith
which should afterwards be revealed. Wherefore the
law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we
might be justified by faith."
Galatians 3:24 KJV
According to this verse in
Galatians, what was the law’s "job"?
From what we learned
earlier, the law teaches us certain specific knowledge.
This verse says that the law is the teacher. Which
knowledge is it that the law teaches?
How long does the verse in
Galatians 3 say that the law would be in effect?
This verse refers to faith
"coming" and being "revealed". Would
you agree that this makes it sound like faith is being
personified?
In Hebrews 12:2 we read
"Looking unto Jesus the author and finisher of our
faith…" Without the added word, ‘our’ (see
footnote), the verse would read "Looking unto Jesus
the author and finisher of faith".
Would you agree that from
this verse, it sounds as though Jesus is the
personification of faith?
So if Jesus is the
personification of faith, when, according to Galatians
3:24 was the law to end?
We’ll talk more about
this idea of Jesus being the personification of faith
later on in the study, but for now, let’s continue our
overview of the Old Testament. It’s time to move from
the law on to the prophets.
The
Prophets of God
When Jesus was on Earth, He
said "Do not think that I have come to abolish the
Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but
to fulfill them." (Matthew 5:17). He also said,
"This is what I told you while I was still with you:
Everything must be fulfilled that is written about me in
the Law of Moses, the Prophets and the Psalms."
In this study guide, we won’t
focus on proving, from the prophets, that Jesus is the
Messiah; rather, we’ll look at some prophecies that talk
about how Jesus’ death would change God’s relationship
with man, forever - the prophecies of judgment.
"Zion shall be
redeemed with judgment, and her converts with
righteousness. And the destruction of the transgressors
and of the sinners shall be together, and they that
forsake the LORD shall be consumed."
Isaiah 1:27-28 KJV
What does Isaiah say will
produce the redemption of Zion (Jews)?
How will Zion’s converts
(non-Jews who are ‘chosen’ of God regardless of their
heritage) be redeemed?
Does it make sense that
Jesus brought both judgment and righteousness to the
world?
Looking at this prophecy as
a whole, does Isaiah ever say that only believers in Jesus
would be redeemed?
Why do you think Isaiah
distinguished between transgressors and sinners?
Does Isaiah say there will
be a difference in the judgments of transgressors and
sinners?
Do you agree that this is a
prophecy that Jesus came to fulfill?
Many times in his writings,
Paul talks about being baptized into Christ (for example,
he says in 1 Corinthians 12:13 that we are "all
baptized into one body"). Did you know that the word
"baptized" that Paul used means to be immersed
or consumed in something?
Who does Isaiah say will be
consumed?
According to Isaiah, then,
how many people would be consumed (baptized) into Jesus?
"And Jesus saith unto
them, All ye shall be offended because of me this night:
for it is written, I will smite the shepherd, and the
sheep shall be scattered."
Mark 14:27 KJV
How many did Jesus say
would forsake Him at his death?
So how many people were
baptized into Jesus’ death?
"Because the law
worketh wrath: for where no law is, there is no
transgression."
Romans
4:15 KJV
Remember, earlier we
learned that Jesus took away the law. So is there such a
thing as transgressions of the law?
Jesus came to remove the
condition of sin from the world. Did he succeed or are
there still people in the world with the condition of sin?
So if Jesus did what he
came to do, and there are no more transgressors and no
more sinners, would it be fair to say that transgressors
and sinners had been destroyed?
"And in this mountain
shall the LORD of hosts make unto all people a feast of
fat things, a feast of wines on the lees, of fat things
full of marrow, of wines on the lees well refined."
Isaiah 25:6 KJV
According to Isaiah, for
how many people was God going to make a feast?
"And he will destroy
in this mountain the face of the covering cast over all
people, and the vail that is spread over all
nations."
Isaiah 25:7 KJV
"And not as Moses,
which put a vail over his face, that the children of
Israel could not stedfastly look to the end of that which
is abolished: But their minds were blinded: for until this
day remaineth the same vail untaken away in the reading of
the old testament; which vail is done away in
Christ."
2
Corinthians 3:13-15 KJV
According to Paul, in 2
Corinthians, when are people’s minds veiled?
So what is it that veils
people’s mind?
What did God say, in Isaiah’s
prophecy, would happen to the "covering cast over all
people, and the vail that is spread over all
nations"?
What does Paul say blinded
the Israelite’s minds, but is now abolished?
In whom does Paul say this
veil was done away with?
At Jesus’ death, the
temple veil was torn. This symbolized the removing of the
separation between God and man. When did the doing away of
the separation/veil take place?
"He will swallow up
death in victory; and the Lord GOD will wipe away tears
from off all faces; and the rebuke of his people shall he
take away from off all the earth: for the LORD hath spoken
it."
Isaiah 25:8 KJV
Who is the "He"
being spoken of in Isaiah’s prophecy?
Whose tears did Isaiah say
God would wipe away?
What did Isaiah say would
happen to God’s rebuking of His people?
For how many people did
Isaiah say this would happen?
Assuming Jesus fulfilled
this prophecy, how many people is God upset with – how
many does He rebuke?
"Behold, I shew you a
mystery; We shall not all sleep, but we shall all be
changed, In a moment, in the twinkling of an eye, at the
last trump: for the trumpet shall sound, and the dead
shall be raised incorruptible, and we shall be
changed. For this corruptible must put on
incorruption, and this mortal must put on
immortality."
1 Corinthians 15:51-53 KJV
How many people did Paul
say would be changed?
What does Paul say would
happen at to the corruptible and the mortal at the last
trump?
"So when this
corruptible shall have put on incorruption, and this
mortal shall have put on immortality, then shall be
brought to pass the saying that is written, Death is
swallowed up in victory. O death, where is thy sting?
O grave, where is thy victory? The sting of death is
sin; and the strength of sin is the law. But thanks
be to God, which giveth us the victory through our Lord
Jesus Christ."
1 Corinthians 15:54-57 KJV
What did Paul say would be
swallowed up when the corruptible would put on
incorruption, and the mortal would put on immortality?
When Jesus rose from the
dead, did He overcome death?
Does it make sense that, in
overcoming death, Jesus showed that death and the grave
have no victory?
Paul, here, quotes from the
prophet Isaiah, who foretold that death would have its
sting taken away. What did Paul say was the sting of
death?
And what did Paul say was
the power of sin?
We learned earlier that
Jesus took away the law. So if the law was taken away,
does sin have any power?
If sin has no power, does
death have any sting?
When was death’s sting
taken away?
Through whom does Paul say
the victory over death came?
So when was this prophecy
fulfilled?
"And it shall be said
in that day, Lo, this is our God; we have waited for him,
and he will save us: this is the LORD; we have waited for
him, we will be glad and rejoice in his salvation."
Isaiah 25:9 KJV
This verse is the
conclusion of the three previous verses we read in Isaiah.
From what we learned from Paul in 1 Corinthians, when was
this prophecy fulfilled?
Isaiah wrote, "In that
day…" In what day was he referring to; that is, in
which day was the prophecy fulfilled?
When did God swallow up
death in victory, stop rebuking human beings, and wipe
away everyone’s tears?
"And your covenant
with death shall be disannulled, and your agreement with
hell shall not stand; when the overflowing scourge shall
pass through, then ye shall be trodden down by it."
Isaiah 28: 15-18 KJV
How many humans had an
agreement with death because of Adam’s sin?
What did Isaiah say would
happen to every human’s agreement with death?
What did Isaiah say would
happen to the human race’s agreement with hell?
In 1 Corinthians 15:55-57,
Paul says that Jesus won the victory over Hell, fulfilling
Isaiah’s prophecy. If Jesus fulfilled this prophecy and
defeated hell, does any human being have an agreement with
hell?
So will any human being go
to hell?
"Seventy weeks are
determined upon thy people and upon thy holy city, to
finish the transgression, and to make an end of sins, and
to make reconciliation for iniquity, and to bring in
everlasting righteousness, and to seal up the vision and
prophecy, and to anoint the most Holy."
Daniel 9:24 KJV
What are the six things
Daniel says would happen by the end of the 70th
week?
Remember Jesus said He came
to fulfill all prophecy. Does it make sense that when
Jesus fulfilled all prophecy, He sealed up the vision and
prophecy?
Do you believe that Jesus
has already been anointed the most Holy?
So if Jesus has already
fulfilled the last two things on this list of "things
to be accomplished", would it make sense that He also
completed the first four?
If Jesus fulfilled and
completed these prophecies, as He claimed, is
transgression of the law finished?
If the transgression of the
law is finished, is it possible for you to break
(transgress) God’s law?
If Jesus fulfilled and
completed these prophecies, as He claimed, has sin come to
an end?
Since sin has come to an
end, is it possible for you to be a sinner?
If Jesus fulfilled and
completed these prophecies, as He claimed, did He make
reconciliation for iniquity?
Since iniquity has been
reconciled, is it possible for God to see you with
iniquity (sinfulness, imperfection)?
If Jesus fulfilled and
completed these prophecies, as He claimed, was everlasting
righteousness brought in?
Since everlasting
righteousness was brought at the cross, is it now
possible, for righteousness to be ended (that is, is it
possible for some people to be unrighteous)?
Jesus’
Mission on Earth
Taking
Away Sin
"The next day John
seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of
God, which taketh away the sin of the world."
John 1:29 KJV
In this verse, the word sin
is a noun. In our study of Adam earlier, what did we
learned the word ‘sin’ refers to when it’s a noun?
So what sin is John saying
Jesus came to take away?
Bringing
Salvation
"And we have seen and
do testify that the Father sent the Son to be the Saviour
of the world."
1 John 4:14 KJV
According to John, who did
Jesus come to save?
Does this verse say Jesus
would be the Saviour only of those who believe in Him, or
of the entire world?
"For the Son of man is
come to save that which was lost."
Matthew 18:11 KJV
"For the Son of man is
come to seek and to save that which was lost."
Luke 19:10 KJV
Whom did Jesus, the Son of
man, come to save?
How many people were lost?
So how many people did
Jesus come to save?
{Jesus said} "I have
glorified thee on the earth: I have finished the work
which thou gavest me to do."
John 17:4 KJV
"When Jesus therefore
had received the vinegar, he said, It is finished: and he
bowed his head, and gave up the ghost."
John 19:30
We read in the previous
verses that Jesus came to save the entire human race, and
that He would take away the condition of unbelief from
everyone. According to what He said in John 17:4, did
Jesus accomplish what He came to do?
When Jesus said "It is
finished", does it make sense that He had completely
done everything He came to do?
Does that include saving
the world?
So did Jesus succeed in His
mission – saving the world?
Jesus
as God’s Judge
"For the Father
judgeth no man, but hath committed all judgment unto the
Son"
John 5:22 KJV
According to John, does God
the Father judge people?
Who did God give the
authority to judge to?
So who is the only one that
will ever judge anyone or anything?
"And Jesus said, For
judgment I am come into this world, that they which see
not might see; and that they which see might be made
blind."
John 9:39
Why did Jesus say He had
come into the world?
"Ye judge after the
flesh; I judge no man. And yet if I judge, my judgment is
true: for I am not alone, but I and the Father that sent
me."
John 8:14-16
Whom did Jesus say He would
judge?
So if Jesus came into the
world for judgment, but would not judge any man, does it
make sense that the only alternative is that He came to be
judged?
"Now is the judgment
of this world: now shall the prince of this world be cast
out. And I, if I be lifted up from the earth, will
draw all unto me. This he said, signifying what death he
should die."
John 12:31-33
Does it make sense that the
subject of these verses is judgment?
So to what does the
"all" in "draw all unto me" refer?
Do you agree that Jesus was
lifted up on the cross?
When did Jesus say the
judgment of the world was?
When did Jesus say the
prince of the world would be cast out?
What did His statements
signify?
So what exact event would
occur, to signify judgment day, and the casting out of the
prince of the world?
According to this verse,
when Jesus was lifted up on the cross, did He draw all
judgment to Himself, or just some of it?
Since Jesus drew all
judgment to Himself, is there any judgment left for you,
or any other person?
"But though he had
done so many miracles before them, yet they believed not
on him: That the saying of Esaias the prophet might
be fulfilled, which he spake, Lord, who hath believed our
report? and to whom hath the arm of the Lord been
revealed? Therefore they could not believe, because
that Esaias said again, He hath blinded their eyes,
and hardened their hearts; that they should not see with
their eyes, nor understand with their heart, and be
converted, and I should heal them. These things said
Esaias, when he saw his glory, and spake of him."
John 12:37-41 KJV
Why did people not believe?
In Amos 3:7, God says that
He "will do nothing, but he revealeth his secret unto
his servants the prophets." So if God told Isaiah (Esaias)
that no one would be converted, because He would blind
there eyes and harden their hearts, could people have
possibly believed in Jesus?
"Nevertheless among
the chief rulers also many believed on him; but because of
the Pharisees they did not confess him, lest they should
be put out of the synagogue: For they loved the
praise of men more than the praise of God."
John 12:42-43 KJV
When He was teaching the
law, Jesus said that the price of denying Him was to be
denied before God (Matthew 10:33). From what Jesus said,
did the belief of the chief rulers "count", even
though they denied Him, or was it as if they had not
believed at all?
So is it true, then, as
Isaiah said, that no one truly believed on Jesus?
"And if any man hear
my words, and believe not, I judge him not: for I came not
to judge the world, but to save the world."
John 12:47 KJV
Does Jesus say that he will
or will not judge the man who does not believe?
Did Jesus come to judge the
world or to save it?
Does it make sense that the
term ‘world’ here includes all human beings?
So whom did Jesus come to
save?
Did Jesus succeed or was He
a failure?
"He that rejecteth me,
and receiveth not my words, hath one that judgeth him: the
word that I have spoken, the same shall judge him in the
last day."
John 12:48 KJV
In the prophets’
writings, we read that the last day was the Day of
Judgment. From what we learned earlier, when was the last
day – Judgment Day?
Do you agree that Jesus is
the Word of God, as John said in John 1:14 ("And the
Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, and we beheld his
glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,
full of grace and truth.")?
So who does this verse say
is the only judge of those that reject Christ?
According to the previous
verse, Christ said He will judge no one based on
unbelief/rejection. We also learned, earlier in John, that
Jesus is the only one that can ever judge you. So will the
unbeliever be judged as guilty?
"For I have not spoken
of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a
commandment, what I should say, and what I should
speak. And I know that his commandment is life
everlasting: whatsoever I speak therefore, even as the
Father said unto me, so I speak."
John 12:49-50 KJV
According to this verse,
where does life everlasting come from?
When Jesus says, "He
gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I
should speak", whose obedience to God’s commandment
is being spoken of: Jesus’ or yours?
So whose obedience to God’s
commandment is it that brings everlasting life?
According to these verses,
does it matter if you obey or not?
The Bible teaches that
belief is a type of obedience. So according to these
verses, does it matter if you believe or not?
Rebirth:
Being Born Again
"Jesus answered,
Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of
water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom
of God. That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that
which is born of the Spirit is spirit. Marvel not that I
said unto thee, Ye must be born again. The wind bloweth
where it listeth, and thou hearest the sound thereof, but
canst not tell whence it cometh, and whither it goeth: so
is every one that is born of the Spirit."
John 3:5-8 KJV
What does Jesus say is
required for people to enter into the kingdom of God?
Is it the flesh or the
Spirit that brings about this rebirth?
If the wind blows where it
wants, do you have control over whether or not the wind
blows on you?
Even though you don’t
know where the wind comes from, does that prevent the wind
from affecting you?
According to Jesus, being
born again is like the wind. If the wind blows wherever it
wants, does it make sense that being born of the Spirit
happens to whomever the Spirit wants?
Still comparing the
born-again experience to the wind, if you can’t tell
where the wind comes from, does it make sense that you
cannot tell where being born again comes from?
Do these verses say
anything about belief being required in order for people
to be born again?
So in His comparison with
the wind, Jesus says that you can neither control being
born again, nor can you tell where being born again comes
from. If this is true, does your belief affect whether or
not you are born again?
Colossians 1:18 says
"And he is the head of the body, the church: who is
the beginning, the firstborn from the dead; that in all
things he might have the preeminence."
Do you agree that if we
consider Jesus’ resurrection to be a birth, as this
verse in Colossians states, He would have been born twice
(the first being when Mary gave birth)?
So would it make sense to
say that Jesus, having already been born once, was born
again when He was raised from the dead?
"For by one Spirit are
we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or
Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all
made to drink into one Spirit."
1 Corinthians 12:13 KJV
"And that he might
reconcile both {referring to Jew and Gentile} unto
God in one body by the cross, having slain the enmity
thereby:"
Ephesians 2:16 KJV (italics
mine)
In God’s eyes, before the
cross, there were only two groups of people: the Jews and
the Gentiles. According to these verses, was either group
of people left out of the baptism into Christ’s body?
If no group was left out of
the baptism then, can we say that every human being was
baptized into Christ’s body at His death?
"Therefore we are
buried with him by baptism into death: that like as Christ
was raised up from the dead by the glory of the Father,
even so we also should walk in newness of life."
Romans
6:4 KJV
From this verse, does it
make sense that everyone who was in Christ at His death
would have been in His body at His resurrection, as well?
How was Christ raised from
the dead?
Does it make sense that the
Spirit of God would have raised Christ?
So if Christ was
"born" from the dead by the Spirit, could we say
that He was born of the Spirit?
If the world (all
humankind) was in Christ at His death and resurrection,
was the world (all humankind) also born of the Spirit?
Recall from John 3, Jesus
said "Except a man be born of water and of the
Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God." Has
every human being been born of "water"
(physically, when their mother gave birth)?
And from what we read
above, has every human being been born of the Spirit at
the resurrection of Jesus?
Flip back to the section we
just did on John 3, and reread the questions you answered
about Jesus’ comparison of the wind to being born again.
Did belief have anything to do with a person being born
again?
So if the world was
baptized into Christ’s death, and was raised with Him,
and belief has nothing to do with being born of the
Spirit, is there anyone that has not been born again?
The
Gospel According to Paul
More
About Faith and Belief
Earlier, we talked about
how Jesus is referred to, in the Bible, as the
personification of faith. Most people are not used to
thinking about Jesus in this way. Faith is also one of the
most important concepts in the Christian church today, so
let’s take a closer look at the Biblical explanation of
faith, and the closely related topic of belief.
"Now faith is the
substance of things hoped for, the evidence of things not
seen."
Hebrews 11:1 KJV
What is the definition of
faith given in this verse?
Do you agree that Christ in
you is the "hope of glory" (Colossians 1:27
"To whom God would make known what is the riches of
the glory of this mystery among the Gentiles; which is
Christ in you, the hope of glory")?
Do you agree that when
Jesus came in the flesh, He was the evidence of something
unseen – namely, God?
So from these verses, does
it make sense that Jesus is the substance of things hoped
for and the evidence of things not seen – that Jesus is
Faith personified?
"For by grace are ye
saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the
gift of God: Not of works, lest any man should
boast."
Ephesians 2:8-9 KJV
According to Paul in his
letter to the Ephesians, how is a person saved?
Does this verse say that
saving faith is or is not of yourself?
How does faith come to a
person if it is not of themselves: by works, or as a gift
from God?
"For what if some did
not believe? shall their unbelief make the faith of God
without effect? God forbid: yea, let God be true, but
every man a liar; as it is written, That thou mightest be
justified in thy sayings, and mightest overcome when thou
art judged."
Romans 3:3-4 KJV
According to these verses
in Romans, will a person’s unbelief make the reality of
God’s faith in their lives ineffectual?
Paul says we may consider
every man to be a liar. What does this say about people
who claimed to believe?
"For God hath
concluded them all in unbelief, that he might have mercy
upon all."
Romans 11:32 KJV
How many people did God
conclude to be in unbelief?
Why did He conclude them in
unbelief?
How many people did God
have mercy on?
If this is how many people
God had mercy on, how many people did not receive mercy
and are bound for eternal torment?
Paul’s
Take on the Law
We touched briefly on the
law and its purpose, earlier in our studies. Paul had
plenty to say on the subject of law versus grace, so let’s
take a closer look.
"Now we know that what
things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are
under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all
the world may become guilty before God."
Romans 3:19 KJV
Recalling what we learned
earlier, to whom does the law speak?
What did the law do when it
"spoke"?
In Hebrews, we learned that
the law was done away with. So if no one is under the law,
to whom is the law speaking?
If the law’s message is
no longer needed, does it speak to anyone?
Can the law speak to you
today, given that you are not under the law?
If the law was what made
you guilty before God and the law is no longer in effect,
is it possible for you to ever be guilty before God?
"Therefore by the
deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his
sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin."
Romans 3:20 KJV
Again, what comes from the
law?
Could the law be done away
with if it still had a certain message and knowledge to
bring?
So what can we conclude
about the presence of ‘sin’ in the world today?
"But now the
righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being
witnessed by the law and the prophets; Even the
righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ
unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no
difference:"
Romans 3:21-22 KJV
Is the righteousness of God
revealed with or without the law?
So could righteousness have
been revealed if the law was still in effect?
According to verse 22 (Even
the righteousness of God which is revealed by faith of
Jesus Christ), whose faith is it that causes
righteousness?
There are two groups of
people mentioned here, whom Paul says have received
righteousness by the faith of Christ. Who are they?
According to these verses,
is there a difference, in God’s eyes, between
"all" (including unbelievers) and "all them
that believe"?
"Therefore we conclude
that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the
law. Is he the God of the Jews only? is he not also
of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also: Seeing it
is one God, which shall justify the circumcision by faith,
and uncircumcision through faith. Do we then make
void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish
the law."
Romans 3:28-31 KJV
According to these verses,
how is man justified?
In the previous section,
whose faith did we determine was being talked about here?
Is belief a work (action)
that was required under the law?
So are you justified by
your own work of believing, or by the faith of Jesus and
the death He died on the cross?
"But now in Christ
Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the
blood of Christ."
Ephesians 2:13 KJV
According to what we
learned about Adam’s transgression, who was alienated
(far off) from God?
So who was made nigh by
Christ’s blood?
"For he is our peace,
who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle
wall of partition between us; Having abolished in his
flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained
in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new
man, so making peace;"
Ephesians 2:14-15 KJV
What happened to the law of
commandments contained in ordinances at Christ’s death?
Recall that before the
cross, there was only two groups of people: the Jews and
the Gentiles. What did Paul say Jesus did to these two
groups, at the cross?
"Blotting out the
handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was
contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to
his cross; And having spoiled principalities and
powers, he made a shew of them openly, triumphing over
them in it."
Colossians 2:13-15 KJV
What did God do to the law
(the handwriting of ordinances)?
Do you agree that Jesus is
the Word of God, as John said in John 1:14 ("And the
Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, and we beheld his
glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,
full of grace and truth.")?
Do you agree that the law,
the prophecies and the other Old Testament writings were
the words of God?
So does it make sense that
Jesus became the manifestation, in human form, of God’s
laws and prophecies?
Given that Jesus was the
manifestation of God’s law, when He was nailed to the
cross, was the law also nailed to the cross?
Does this agree with what
Paul said about the law being nailed to the cross?
If the law was nailed to
the cross, and was blotted out, is it still in effect?
Reconciliation
"And that he might
reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross, having
slain the enmity thereby: And came and preached peace
to you which were afar off, and to them that were
nigh. For through him we both have access by one
Spirit unto the Father. Now therefore ye are no more
strangers and foreigners, but fellowcitizens with the
saints, and of the household of God;"
Ephesians 2:16-19 KJV
If the entire world was
included in the groups Jew and Gentile, how many people
were reconciled unto God in one body by the cross?
According to these verses,
since this reconciliation took place (that is, since the
cross), is anyone still a stranger to God?
"And, having made
peace through the blood of his cross, by him to reconcile
all things unto himself; by him, I say, whether they be
things in earth, or things in heaven. And you, that
were sometime alienated and enemies in your mind by wicked
works, yet now hath he reconciled in the body of his
flesh through death, to present you holy and unblameable
and unreproveable in his sight"
Colossians 1:20-22 KJV
How many things did Christ
reconcile to himself at the cross?
Did He leave anything or
anyone unreconciled?
Does it matter if the
thing/person was on earth or in heaven – that is, if
they were living or dead?
In this verse, does it say
that people were actually alienated from God by their
wicked works, or that this is what their mind was telling
them?
Have you ever convinced
yourself of something that is not true?
So is it possible that when
people think they are alienated from God by their works,
when in reality they aren’t?
From what we learned about
Adam’s transgression, was it the condition of sin that
caused people to be alienated, or was it their works?
Did God reconcile those
people who considered themselves to be the enemies of God?
Did God reconcile, to
Himself, those people who had committed wicked works?
How did He accomplish this?
As a result of this
accomplishment, what is God’s opinion of you?
The
Sin Issue
"For all have sinned,
and come short of the glory of God; Being justified
freely by his grace through the redemption that is in
Christ Jesus: Whom God hath set forth to be a
propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his
righteousness for the remission of sins that are past,
through the forbearance of God;"
Romans 3:23-25 KJV
How many had sinned and
fallen short of the glory of God?
So how many were justified
freely by his grace through the redemption that is in
Christ Jesus?
Does this passage say that
past or future sin was dealt with at the cross?
In Hebrews 9:15, we read "And
for this cause he is the mediator of the new testament,
that by means of death, for the redemption of the
transgressions that were under the first testament, they
which are called might receive the promise of eternal
inheritance."
According to this verse in
Hebrews and this one in Romans, did Jesus die for sin
committed before his death, or after his death?
Did you know that nowhere
in the Bible does it say that Jesus died for any sin that
would occur after His death?
Why do you think Jesus did
not die for any sin that occurred after the cross? Does it
make sense that if Jesus completely took away sin at the
cross, he would not have had to die for the sin of those
who lived after the cross?
One Baptism and Burial
"There is one body,
and one Spirit, even as ye are called in one hope of your
calling; One Lord, one faith, one baptism, One God and
Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in
you all."
Ephesians 4:4-6 KJV
How many bodies are there?
Do you accept that this
body is Christ?
If there is only one body,
can some people not be a part of the body of Christ?
How many Spirits are there?
Do you accept that this
Spirit is God/Christ?
If there is only one
Spirit, is it possible for there to exist evil/demonic
spirits, or even human spirits that are not submitted to
God?
How many hopes are there?
Do you accept that this
hope is Christ? (Christ in you, the hope of glory)
How many Lords are there?
Do you accept that this
Lord is Christ?
If there is only one Lord,
is it possible for the devil to be lord (master) over the
earth? Is it possible for people to be serving
"another" lord (master) rather than Christ?
How many faiths are there?
From what we’ve read in
these verses so far, does it make sense that faith here is
also a personification of Christ, as we saw earlier?
If there is only one faith,
is it possible for people to have their own, individual
faith in God/Jesus?
How many baptisms are
there?
Do you accept that this
baptism is Christ?
If there is only one
baptism, is it possible for people to be baptized into
Christ at different times – namely, when they believe?
Is it possible for the baptism with Christ into the grave
to occur more than once?
How many God and Fathers
are there?
Of whom is He God and
Father?
Who is he above? Who is he
through? Who is he in?
Does this verse say about
only believers having the indwelling Christ?
So from this last verse, is
there any person in whom God does not dwell?
"Buried with him in
baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the
faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from
the dead. And you, being dead in your sins and the
uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together
with him, having forgiven you all trespasses;"
Colossians 2:12-13 KJV
According to these verses,
were you buried and raised with Christ?
When was Christ buried and
raised?
When were all trespasses
forgiven?
So were you buried,
forgiven and raised when you believed, or were you raised
with Christ over 2000 years ago at the cross?
Redemption
"But when the fulness
of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a
woman, made under the law, To redeem them that were under
the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons."
KJV
Galatians 4:4-5
What happened to signify
the fullness of time?
What did God send His Son
to do?
Does Paul say that Jesus
was only going to redeem believers, or that Jesus would
redeem everyone under the law?
According to these verses,
then, who is redeemed?
God’s
Will
"That in the
dispensation of the fulness of times he might gather
together in one all things in Christ, both which are in
heaven, and which are on earth; even in him: In whom also
we have obtained an inheritance, being predestinated
according to the purpose of him who worketh all things
after the counsel of his own will."
Ephesians 1:10-11 KJV
From what we learned in
Galatians 4:4-5, when was the fullness of times?
Whom did God gather into
Christ at this time?
Who’s will/decision was
it to gather together in one, all things?
According to Paul, do
people become ‘in Christ’ when they believe, or were
they ‘in Christ’ from the moment Jesus died?
"Then said I, Lo, I
come (in the volume of the book it is written of me,) to
do thy will, O God. Above when he said, Sacrifice and
offering and burnt offerings and offering for sin thou
wouldest not, neither hadst pleasure therein; which are
offered by the law; Then said he, Lo, I come to do thy
will, O God. He taketh away the first, that he may
establish the second."
Hebrews 10:7-9
What did Jesus come to do
(according to the prophets)?
What action did He do that
fulfilled God’s will?
In the context of this
chapter, the ‘first’ and ‘second’ being discussed
in these verses are the ‘first covenant’ (law, which
came by Moses) and the ‘second covenant’ (grace, which
came by Jesus Christ). In these verses, what happened to
the first covenant?
If the first covenant (law)
was taken away, does it still apply to your life?
What has been established
in place of the law?
"By the which will we
are sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus
Christ once for all. And every priest standeth daily
ministering and offering oftentimes the same sacrifices,
which can never take away sins: But this man, after
he had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever, sat down
on the right hand of God; From henceforth expecting
till his enemies be made his footstool. For by one
offering he hath perfected for ever them that are
sanctified."
Hebrews 10:10-14 KJV
According to this passage
in Hebrews, were you made holy by your will (your belief),
or by God’s will?
For how many people did
Jesus offer his body?
So how many people have
been sanctified by the offering of His body?
How many sacrifices did
Jesus offer?
Will He ever offer another
sacrifice?
According to Hebrews 9:22,
"without shedding of blood is no remission."
If Jesus’ sacrifice was
the last blood offering, and there was sin in your life,
would it be possible to ‘get forgiven’ of your sin,
without having offered a blood sacrifice?
Hebrews
10:18 records "Now where
remission of these [sin] is, there is no more offering for
sin." If there is no more offering for sin, would it
make sense that there is no more sin that needs to be
remitted?
If there is no more sin to
be remitted, is there such a thing as sin in this world?
"For this is good and
acceptable in the sight of God our Saviour; Who will have
all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the
truth. For there is one God, and one mediator between
God and men, the man Christ Jesus; Who gave himself a
ransom for all, to be testified in due time."
1 Timothy 2: 3-6 KJV
How many people did God ‘will’
to be saved?
According to what we just
learned in Hebrews 10, did Jesus come to do God’s will?
Did Jesus accomplish what
He set out to do?
For how many people did
Jesus die as a ransom?
Is there any person who has
not been bought (redeemed) by Jesus?
According to these verses,
did the blood of Jesus only ransom believers, or did it
ransom all?
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